Monday, August 24, 2026

THE VERACITY OF THE BIBLE

 

By NYC Wanderer (Kevin Eng) - originally posted to Flickr as Gutenberg Bible, CC BY-SA 2.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=9914015

The Bible “isn’t the Word of God…inerrant or infallible.”

When speaking of the veracity of some thing, what we are endeavouring to show is that that thing conforms with, or is committed to, those things which are considered to be true.  Therefore, the purpose of this article is to show that all of that which the scripture declares to be true, is actually true in all it asserts regarding life, faith, and practice.  The International Council on Biblical Inerrancy (ICBI) convened an assembly of more than 300 theologians and ministers in the fall of 1978 who authored what became recognized as The Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy.  Of the 19 articles penned, Article III states, in part, “we affirm the written word in its entirety is revelation given by God.”[i]  Added to that, Article XII states, in part, “that Scripture in its entirety is inerrant, being free from all falsehood, fraud, or deceit.”[ii] (Italics added) 

     On February 19th of 2021 “The Blaze” posted an article by Dave Urbanski regarding a statement by Pastor Josh Scott of GracePointe Church in Nashville Tennessee who had made the statement that the Bible “isn’t the Word of God…inerrant or infallible”. As a qualifier, he argued that only parts of the Bible can be considered God’s Word. In essence he contends that only parts of the Bible are inspired. As a result, pastor Scott ascribed to a view referred to as, limited inspiration. Those associated with this belief argue that the scriptures are only inspired, in areas of religious dogma and anything outside of that, like historical accounts, matters of fact, et cetera that fall outside the realm of doctrine or precept are subject to debate. But the conclusion follows logically from the premises. 1. the Bible is the Word of God, 2. God cannot err, 3. therefore, the Bible cannot err. Two verses contradict this belief, 2 Timothy 3:16 states that, “All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness…” and 2 Peter 1:21, “For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit”. (Italics added).[iii] 

     πᾶσα (all) γραφὴ (scripture) θεόπνευστος (inspired by God).[iv]

     For our purposes, I am only going to focus on the first part of 2 Timothy 3:16.  In the Greek, the adjective πᾶσα (pasa) translates as “all” or “every.”  Adjectives typically serve as a modifiers of a noun to denote a quality of the thing named, to indicate its quantity or extent, in this instance the noun γραφὴ (graphē) which translates as “writing” or “scripture.”  Here the adjective “all” has to do with quantity. In contrast to the adjective “some” which is defined as that which is unknown, undetermined, or unspecified number of some thing.

     The Old Testament had already been received as authenticated scripture, but Paul would have also been referring to some New Testament writings which had also been received as scripture. Paul wrote, “For the Scripture says, ‘You shall not muzzle an ox when it treads out the grain,’ and, ‘the laborer deserves his wages.’”  (1 Tim. 5:18, italics added). Paul understood the first reference (Deut. 25:4) from the O.T. as scripture, along with his quote of Luke’s gospel (Lk. 10:7), from the N.T. in the second reference, also as scripture. Likewise, Peter had credited Paul’s writings as scripture. Speaking of Paul, Peter writes, “There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.” (2 Peter 3:16, italics added). So, Peter had accepted Paul’s writings as scripture along with the “other scriptures” which comprise the O.T.

     Returning to our exegete of 2 Timothy 3:16, the verb είναι (einai) translated “is” functions as a present infinitive meaning to be, or to exist.  The adjective θεόπνευστος (theopneustos) translates literally as “God[‘s] Spirit.”  The phrase, “breathed out by” does not appear in the original Greek. Its insertion in the English transliteration has a functional purpose, for reasons of clarity. Its intercalation in the English is based on Paul’s word for God, which conjoins two Greek words, the noun θεός (God) and the adjective πνευστος (pneustos) which is derived from the Greek πνίγω (pneō) meaning, “to breathe hard.”  This Greek word of Paul’s is used nowhere else in scripture. Paul created the word to emphasize its divine origin, a corollary of which would be the authority and inspiration of scripture.  I wonder if Pastor Scott would argue that, where Paul states that “All Scripture is given by inspiration of God” (NKJV), “this verse itself is not the word of God and therefore it is not inspired”.  Or that, “the verse is in error at that point”.

     In summary then, this verse states that the sum total of “all” scripture, or all that was received as inspired “scripture”, including the Old Testament in addition to Peter and Paul’s “writings” at a minimum, were breathed out, or spoken by God.

   ἀλλὰ (but) ὑπὸ (by) πνεύματος (spirit) ἁγίου (holy) φερόμενοι (to carry, bring) ἐλάλησαν (to speak) ἀπὸ (from) θεοῦ (God) ἄνθρωποι (man).[v] 

     Again, for our purposes I am only going to focus on the second part of 2 Peter 1:21.  The co-ordinating conjunction ἀλλὰ (alla) translates as “but” and functions as a connective term meaning notwithstanding or nevertheless, contrasting the declarative phrase of 21a with 21b. The preposition ὑπὸ (hypo) translated as “by” functions as a qualifier of the noun which follows. It answers to the question of how. What the how is in reference to, will be determined as we continue our study.  The noun πνεύματος (pneumatos) translated as “spirit” is derived from the root word πνεῦμα (pneuma) meaning a current of air, a variant of πνέω (pneō) meaning, to breathe hard, as previously noted.  The noun “spirit’ is never categorized as an impersonal force.  The adjective ἁγίου (hagiou) translated as “holy” functions as a modifier of the noun which precedes it.  This Greek word possesses a singular genitive case ending which indicates possession denoting this spirit is holy and is an attribute of His nature.  The verb φερόμενοι (pheromenoi) meaning, “to bring or carry” is a present tense, passive verb.  Active verbs indicate that the subject is the one performing the act, passive verbs indicate the subject is the one being acted upon.  So, what is the subject in this verse?  The noun ἄνθρωποι (anthropoi) translated “man” has the case ending, οι which is nominative plural.  Words that have the nominative case endings indicate the subject, therefore, anthropoi “man” is the subject of the verb pheromenoi “to bring” ὑπὸ “by” means of the ἁγίου “holy” πνεύματος “spirit”.  The subject “Man” is also plural in the Greek.

     In summary then, contrary to the declarative phrase of 21a that no prophecy of scripture had man for its origin but originated with God by the spirit who is holy by his very nature and moved upon these men in such a fashion so as to bare them up or carry them along as they penned the scriptures that God delivered to them.

     Furthermore, many of the church fathers espoused the inspiration and inerrancy of scripture. Clement of Rome had stated that, “the Scriptures… are the true utterances of the Holy Spirit.”[vi]  Justin Martyr added that those, “who spoke by the Divine Spirit…both saw and announced the truth to men, neither reverencing nor fearing any man, not influenced by a desire for glory, by speaking those things alone which they saw and which they heard, being filled with the Holy Spirit.”[vii] Also that, “the holy Spirit of prophecy taught us this, telling us by Moses that God spoke thus”[viii]  and that, “Moses… wrote in the Hebrew character by the divine inspiration.”[ix]  Origen also stated that, “the Scriptures themselves are divine, i.e., were inspired by the Spirit of God.”[x]  In addition Irenaeus declared that, “the Scriptures are indeed perfect, since they were spoken by the Word of God and His Spirit[xi]  Thomas Aquinas, quoting Augustine, stated that, “the authority of the canonical Scripture” is “an incontrovertible proof” and that "only those books of Scripture which are called canonical have I learned to hold in such honor as to believe their authors have not erred in any way in writing them.”[xii] Aquinas himself had stated, “A true prophet is always inspired by the Spirit of truth, in Whom there is no falsehood.”[xiii] (Italics added)

     Finally, the scriptures themselves attest to their own inspiration and inerrancy.  The International Council on Biblical Inerrancy article XV states, “We affirm that the doctrine of inerrancy is grounded in the teaching of the Bible about inspiration.”[xiv] A further statement issued by the ICBI declared that, “Holy Scripture, being God’s own word, written by men prepared and superintended by his spirit, is of infallible divine authority in all matters upon which it touches: it is to believed, as God’s instruction, in all that it affirms; obeyed, as God’s command, in all that it requires; embraced, as God’s pledge, in all that it promises.”[xv] (Italics added)

     Regarding inspiration/inerrancy of the Old Testament Moses recorded, “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him.” (Deut. 18:18) The scribe Baruch, recorded the prophecy of Jeremiah stating, “Then the Lord put out his hand and touched my mouth. And the Lord said to me, ’Behold, I have put my words in your mouth.’” (Jer. 1:9) David testified that, “The Spirit of the Lord speaks by me; his word is on my tongue.” (2 Sam. 23:2) and that, “The words of the Lord are pure…” (Ps. 12:6), “The law of the Lord is perfect”, (Ps. 19:7), to the words of Agur, “Every word of God proves true” (Prov. 30:5). The Lord, referring to the prophet Isaiah said, “my words… I have put in your mouth” (Isa. 59:21, 51:16; Deut. 4:10) and the writer of the book of Zechariah records that, “the words that the Lord of hosts had sent by his Spirit through the former prophets.” (Zech. 7:12; Neh. 9:30), (Italics added).

     With respect to the New Testament, and apart from the two passages previously cited (2 Timothy 3:16, 2 Peter 1:21), Jesus queried, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord” (Matthew 22:43), “through the mouth of our father David, your servant, said by the Holy Spirit” (Acts 4:25).  Paul declared, “And we impart this in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit” (1 Cor. 2:13), and again “If anyone thinks that he is a prophet, or spiritual, he should acknowledge that the things I am writing to you are a command of the Lord” (14:37).  Regarding the gospel that Paul was preaching he declared that “I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ” (Galatians 1:12).  The writer of Hebrews stated that it is “impossible for God to lie” (6:18).  Jesus also declared that “Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35). 

    What about textual variants?  Perhaps this is what Pastor Scott is thinking about when he claims that the scriptures are not infallible or inerrant.  For this part, I am only going to address the largest area of variants.  Simply because we find variants in MSS (manuscripts), does not indicate the scriptures are in error.  The Greek New Testament contains an estimated 138,000 words, all total, there are between 300,000 to 400,000 variants. A textual variant is any place among the manuscripts of the New Testament where there is not uniformity of wording.[xvi]  That number sounds rather significant, but there is no cause for concern if you understand what those variants consist of.

Quality of Variants Among New Testament Manuscripts

 

1=spelling errors

2=variants that do not affect translation

3=meaningful, but not viable variants

4=meaningful and viable variants[1]

 

     As you can see in the chart, the vast number of variants are nothing more than spelling errors, so, if the quantity of variants number 400,000, then nearly 275,000 - 300,000 of them are spelling errors. As an example, the name for John is spelled in Greek two different ways, either Iōannēs or Iōanēs. The same person is in view either way; the only difference is whether the name has two n’s or one. One of the most common textual variants involves what is called a movable nu. The Greek letter nu (n) can occur at the end of certain words when they precede a word that starts with a vowel. This is similar to the two forms of the indefinite article in English: a or an. But whether the nu appears in these words or not, there is absolutely no difference in meaning. It is so insignificant that most textual critics simply ignore the variants involving a movable nu when transcribing the words of a manuscript. It affects nothing.[xvii]  Furthermore, if  a word is spelled incorrectly, and the same word occurs some 5,000 times, it is counted as 5,000 variants, not one. The most significant type of variant include variants which are both meaningful and viable, “meaningful” in the sense that the variant changes the meaning of the text to some degree.  “Viable” in the sense that the variants are plausible as differing from the original.  However, only about one percent of the total exist as this type of variant and none of the variants adversely affect any accepted doctrine.

     In conclusion, if the Bible is not inspired, then it cannot be from God and contradicts 2 Timothy 3:16 that “All Scripture is given by inspiration of God” (NKJV).  If the scriptures are inspired of God, then they cannot be in error, if they are in error, then God is in error, and that is simply not possible. 



[1] J. Ed Komoszewski, M. James Sawyer, and Daniel B. Wallace, Reinventing Jesus: How Contemporary Skeptics Miss the Real Jesus and Mislead Popular Culture (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel Publications, 2006), 63.



[i] Norman L. Geisler and William C. Roach, Defending Inerrancy: Affirming the Accuracy of Scripture for a New Generation (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Publishing Group, 2011), 27.

[ii] Ibid., 29.

[iii] Unless otherwise noted, all Biblical references are in the English Standard Version, with Strong’s Numbers (Wheaton IL: Crossway, 2008).

[iv] Michael W. Holmes, The Greek New Testament: SBL Edition (Lexham Press; Society of Biblical Literature, 2011–2013), 2 Ti 3:16.

[v] Ibid., 2 Pe 1:21.

[vi] Clement of Rome, “The First Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians,” in The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, vol. 1, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 17.

[vii] Justin Martyr, “Dialogue of Justin with Trypho, a Jew,” in The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, vol. 1, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 198.

[viii] Justin Martyr, “The First Apology of Justin,” in The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, vol. 1, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 177.

[ix] Justin Martyr, “Justin’s Hortatory Address to the Greeks,” in The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, trans. M. Dods, vol. 1, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 278–288.

[x] Origen, “De Principiis,” in Fathers of the Third Century: Tertullian, Part Fourth; Minucius Felix; Commodian; Origen, Parts First and Second, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, trans. Frederick Crombie, vol. 4, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 349.

[xi] Irenaeus of Lyons, “Irenæus against Heresies,” in The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, vol. 1, The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885), 399.

[xii] Aquinas, Thomas. Summa Theologica (Complete & Unabridged) (p. 5). Coyote Canyon Press. Kindle Edition.

 [xiii]  Ibid., 556.

[xiv] Norman L. Geisler and William C. Roach, Defending Inerrancy: Affirming the Accuracy of Scripture for a New Generation (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Publishing Group, 2011), 283.

[xv] Ibid.

[xvi] J. Ed Komoszewski, M. James Sawyer, and Daniel B. Wallace, Reinventing Jesus: How Contemporary Skeptics Miss the Real Jesus and Mislead Popular Culture (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel Publications, 2006), 54.

[xvii] Ibid., 56.


Monday, August 3, 2026

LEX LUTHOR AND THE PROBLEM OF EVIL: A THEODICY

 


Part 2: The Philosophical Problem of Evil

It may prove beneficial to the reader to know exactly what the term “theodicy” actually means.  It is comprised of two Greek words, theos meaning “God” and dice meaning “justice”. A theodicy therefore is an attempt to show that, not only does God exist, but also that He is just, regardless of the existence of evil in the world.

     While it is true that God created all things in existence, it is not true that He created evil. Evil is not a thing or substance but a lack in some good thing, as such God cannot be the author of evil. Augustine argued that evil is privation, the same argument was echoed by Aquinas. Every creation of God is good; evil exists when that good thing is corrupted. That trees exist is a great good. Trees absorb carbon dioxide and expel oxygen; we expel carbon dioxide while taking in oxygen. Disease, decay, or rottenness in a tree is a lack in that good thing. Such decay exists as an evil in that tree, the evil does not exist a se. Some have argued, incorrectly so, that to state evil as a privation is to claim that evil is an absence of good, but that is simply not the case. Evil is a lacking or corruption of some good thing that should be there but is not, as in the instance of lost sight or limbs in those things which should possess them and do not. The fact that a stone cannot see is not evidence of evil because it lacks that ability. By their very nature stones do not possess such an ability, people and animals do, therefore for a person to lack the ability to see is an evil. Explaining evil as a lack in a good thing does not explain where the lack comes from. All it explains is the nature of evil as a real privation in good things. Where the corruption came from is another question.[1] Philosopher Jeremy A. Evans has said,

The concept of evil as a privation of the good has been essential in undermining at least on argument against the existence of God from evil, namely that God caused evil...God created only actual things (or substances). Evil is not an actual thing (or substance). Therefore, God did not create evil.[2]  

     The moral argument for God’s existence attempts to ascertain whether objective moral values and duties actually exist.  If objective moral values and duties do exist, then God exists. If objective moral values do not exist, then God does not exist. Objective moral values and duties do exist therefore, God does exist. If we are going to claim that objective morality does not exist, and that morality only exists subjectively then Hitler did nothing wrong, he was simply doing what he believed was right. But if we know that to perform an act of genocide on a group of people in an effort obliterate them is abhorrently wrong, then we know that certain evils are objectively wrong and that therefore objective morality does exist. 

     When we speak of value, we are speaking of the worth of some thing, this idea is also transferable to persons as well as particular acts or behaviors. When dealing with moral values we are weighing certain particulars regarding whether those things, or persons, or acts, or behaviors are good or bad. Moral duty has to do with moral obligations, what one ought or ought not do.

     A few years ago, I was speaking on Hamartiology, or the Doctrine of Sin, when one gentleman made the comment that “in order for us to know what good is, evil must exist”, but is that really true?  Is there really no other way for us to tell what is good unless evil is present? As I thought about it, I concluded that the statement was false. All that would be truly necessary for Adam and Eve to know what good was, would be for them to know the nature and character of God, which they would have known intimately before the fall. True to his own method of inquiry, Socrates first posed the question, “Is the good good because God wills it? Or does God will it because it is good?” One of the world’s foremost apologists, Dr. William Lane Craig, has put the question this way,

Is something good because God will it? Or does God will something because it is good? If you say that something is good because God wills it, then what is good becomes arbitrary. But if you say that God wills something it is good, then it what is good or bad is independent of God. IN that case, moral values and duties exist independently of God. There's a third alternative, namely, God will something because He is good.[3] (Emphasis added).

     In other words, if that which is good is only good “because God wills it”, then what is good is subjective based solely on His own discretion, not based on any legal grounds. If this is how good is determined, then God appears to act capriciously. But if you were to say God wills something because the act, in and of itself, is good or bad then moral values and duties are independent of God. But God, by His very nature, is good, it is not possible for Him to conduct Himself in any other way, He is a law unto Himself, for that reason “God wills something because He is good”. Adam and Eve would have known this.      

     The question comes down to this, can we be good without God? If the answer is yes, what reason could one possibly give for being good?  How would you determine what good is in the first place? Would not all goodness become subjective?  “In those days there was no king in Israel. Everyone did what was right in his own eyes”. (Judges 21:25 ESV)[4] If we are the ones to set the standard for that which is right and wrong then what becomes good for me may not be good for you. "Hence today I believe that I am acting in accordance with the will of the Almighty Creator: by defending myself against the Jew, I am fighting for the work of the Lord.” —Adolf Hitler (Mein Kampf).[5]  Again, if that which is good is subjective from one person to another, then Hitler was merely doing what he believed was right and cannot therefore be faulted. For this reason, there must be an objective standard which has been set which states that the act of murder is not just bad, it is categorically wrong. But if there is no objectively set standard of duty, then there is no morally binding obligation weighing on my conscience, and yet my conscience prevails. Moral values and duties do not exist independent of persons, that is, benevolence, mercy, justice, etcetera, do not exist in a vacuum. Each exists as a verb, which can be active or passive. But in order for such to exist bodies must be present for such to bestowed upon another (active), or for one to be the recipient of (passive). Were such properties to exist independent of persons then their effects are non-binding and non-obligatory, yet my “conscience bearing witness” to show mercy to those who are suffering indicates that such properties do not exist independent of persons.     

     There are two aspects to the problem of evil, the Intellectual and the Emotional. The intellectual aspect can be further subdivided into the Logical Problem of Evil (LPE) and the Evidential Problem of Evil (EPE). The former addresses the plausibility of the existence of God and evil simultaneously. The latter addresses how such a God, if there is one, could allow for the existence of such evil in the world. But what would cause someone to question the first argument? Why would it not be possible for God and evil to co-exist?  Do they know something about the nature of God to suggest that the existence of both God and evil is incompatible?  The argument is often made that if God is omnipotent and omni-benevolent why does evil remain?  Thus, leading to the conclusion that if God is powerful enough to remove it, He must be insensitive to it, or if He is all-loving and sensitive to it, then He must not be powerful enough to remove it. Or it may be that He just does not exist at all. But there is one aspect of the nature of God, which is often overlooked, namely, that He is omniscient while we are not. The adjective “omniscient” is derived from two Latin words, Omni meaning all and scient meaning knowledge.  As such, anything that can be known is known completely by God, past, present, and future. He is infinite in knowledge, wisdom, and understanding. 

     Some will argue that if God is all-powerful, He could have created any world He wished, He could have created a world without suffering. But are those two claims necessarily true? Is it really true that God could have created any world He wished? As it turns out, such a claim is actually false. While God is omnipotent, He is nevertheless bound by certain constraints of His own nature. As He is perfect in existence, He must therefore create that which is also perfect, He must create “the best possible world”, to do otherwise would be contrary to His nature. As a perfect being possessing free-will, He must likewise create creatures which are themselves perfect, possessing free-will. The creation of free-will creatures such as we are, is not the problem, our misuse of that freedom is. Moral evil occurs when free persons misuse their freedom in such a way that the content of their will and/or actions violates a moral standard.[6] As such it begs the question, what is that standard, and where did it come from? Furthermore, in response to the question of whether or not God could have created a world without suffering, the answer is, He did. Then the reply invariably comes that, we still see suffering in the world today, so no He did not. For those arguing this point you need to go back and read part one of this article. Analytic Philosopher Dr. Alvin Plantinga has declared,

A world containing creatures who are significantly free (and freely perform more good than evil actions) is more valuable, all else being equal, than a world containing no free creatures at all. Now God can create free creatures, but he can't cause or determine them to only what is right. For if he does so, then they aren't significantly free after all; they do not do what is right freely. To create creatures capable of moral good therefore, he must create creatures capable of moral evil and he can't give these creatures the freedom to perform evil and at the same time prevent them from doing so.[7]

      Also, God may have good reasons for allowing suffering, some greater good may be realized as a result. Without fail some will raise the question, “what possible good could come from allowing people to suffer”?  But we actually do this all the time, when we take our children to the dentist, or to the doctor to get a shot, there is a measure of suffering and fear, but good will come of it. This brings us to the Evidential Problem of Evil (EPE) and the atheistic argument that it is improbable that God could have good reasons for permitting suffering. In “the Condition of Reasonable Epistemic Access” or “theistic skepticism” is the notion that if there were some greater good that may be realized from God’s permittance of the existence of evil in the world, our cognitive limitations simply do not allow for us to know or comprehend fully His reasons for doing so.  Philosopher Dr. William Alston has stated,

each theodicy provided as a response to evil reveals 'limits to our cognitive powers, opportunities, and achievements in arguing that we are not in the right position to deny that God nave the kind of reason [some greater food] for various cases of suffering.'[8]

     For the atheist, to make the claim that no greater good could come from the allowance of evil and suffering is ignorant. As persons we are finite, contingent beings, limited by space, time, intellect, and insight. God is an infinite, necessary being, omniscient in existence. “I am God, and there is none like me, declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, ​‘My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,’” (Is.46:9b-10). Due to our own limitations as finite creatures we are, quite simply, in no way able to make so great a judgement on whether or not God could have good reasons for the permittance of suffering. Dr. Stephen Wykstra has argued that,

the gap between our intellect and God's is enormous. If there is any charity to be ascribed to a situation, it must be, of necessity, to the God whose intellectual powers have no rival. Thus, 'if we think carefully about the sort of being theism proposes for our belief, it is entirely expectable - given what we know of our cognitive limits - that the goods by virtue of which this Being allows known suffering should very often be beyond our ken.'[9]

     Does the atheist believe the existence of God is impossible or merely improbable or unlikely? And if so, improbable relative to what? What great enlightenment, what vast knowledge acquired, to lead one to such a conclusion? How many times have I come across this? The existence of evil and suffering in the world is often employed by atheists as a rescuing device when the argument starts to go sideways because the evidence for the existence of God is actually quite extensive. As such, they begin to realize that His existence is not impossible and therefore unlikely due to the degree of evil and suffering in the world. Craig has stated,

"I'm convinced that whatever improbability suffering may cast upon God's existence, it's outweighed by the arguments for the existence of God."[10]  

     Furthermore, if we are going to be entirely honest, much of the suffering that people do experience is the result of poor choices or decisions they make themselves. Or, as the result of evil acts of individuals, or groups, perpetrated on another. Should someone move to a region prone to flooding and mudslides and a family home is destroyed, or people have died as a result, God cannot be faulted. If someone should live in a region prone to earthquakes and annual forest fires during the summer months, such as in California, again God cannot be faulted when these things occur. If someone should reside in a region prone to drought and their crops fail, God cannot be held responsible. Should someone reside in the region of “tornado alley” and their home is destroyed by one, you cannot blame God for that. In each of those cases, people choose to live in those regions despite the possible risks. I do not like the cold and snow, but my wife and I chose to have our home built in a region characterized as the “snowbelt”. So, during the winter months we receive more snow in our region than the average, but that was our choice to build there. These are examples of what is referred to as natural evil.

     What about when people contract an illness? Certainly, some of the illnesses that people experience is again the result of choices we have made. Poor diet can lead to heart disease as well as certain cancers. Substance abuse like alcohol, tobacco, and drugs, legal or illegal can result in serious illness and/or death. Use of alcohol and/or tobacco can also lead to various forms of cancer. This type of evil is referred to as physical evil. Though some have encompassed physical evil with natural evil as being one and the same. Regardless, there is another aspect to this whole issue that runs at a deeper level. Making sense of these deep and often emotional experiences, this I will address in part three.     

    

 



[1] Geisler, Norman L.. If God, Why Evil?: A New Way to Think About the Question (p. 26). Baker Publishing Group. Kindle Edition.

[2] Evans, Jeremy A.. The Problem of Evil: The Challenge to Essential Christian Beliefs (B&H Studies in Christian Apologetics) (p. 1). B&H Publishing Group. Kindle Edition.

[3] Craig, William Lane. On Guard: Defending Your Faith with Reason and Precision (Kindle Locations 2207-2208). David C. Cook. Kindle Edition

[4] Unless otherwise indicated, all scriptural quotes are from The Holy Bible. English Standard Version, with Strong’s Numbers (Wheaton IL: Crossway, 2008).

[6] Evans, Jeremy A.. The Problem of Evil: The Challenge to Essential Christian Beliefs (B&H Studies in Christian Apologetics) (p. 2). B&H Publishing Group. Kindle Edition.

[7] Ibid., 18. Quoting Alvin Plantinga, God, Freedom, and Evil (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1974), 30.

[8] Evans, Jeremy A.. The Problem of Evil: The Challenge to Essential Christian Beliefs (B&h Studies in Christian Apologetics) (pp. 28-29). B&H Publishing Group. Kindle Edition. Quoting Alston, “Inductive Argument from Evil,” 59.

[9] Ibid., (p. 30). Quoting Stephen Wykstra, “The Humean Obstacle to Evidential Arguments from Suffering: On Avoiding the Evils of Appearance,” International Journal for Philosophy of Religion 16 (1984): 91.

[10] Craig, William Lane. On Guard: Defending Your Faith with Reason and Precision (Kindle Locations 2639-2642). David C. Cook. Kindle Edition.


THE VERACITY OF THE BIBLE

  By NYC Wanderer (Kevin Eng) - originally posted to Flickr as Gutenberg Bible, CC BY-SA 2.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curi...